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PELLETB · practice questions by sub-test

Pellet B practice test, every option explained

60 practice questions for the four Pellet B sub-tests, written to the 2025 version of the test, with no CLOZE section. Pick an answer to see why it is right or wrong, then read the notes on the other options: the wrong ones show the errors the test is built to catch.

  • 60practice questions here
  • 65–78questions on the test
  • 1 h 45 mintesting time
  • Set by the agencypassing score

Pellet B practice questions

0 of 60 answered · 0 correct
Question 1 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The opening phrase is followed by "a suspicious vehicle," which reads as if the vehicle was patrolling.

B

Correct: Officer Patel follows the opening phrase, so the person patrolling is clearly identified.

Question 2 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Two independent clauses are joined by only a comma, which is a comma splice.

B

Correct: The semicolon correctly links two complete, closely related clauses.

Question 3 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The comma with "and" properly joins the two independent clauses.

B

Incorrect: Only a comma stands between "testifying" and "they answer," so two full clauses form a comma splice.

Question 4 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The period leaves "Because he had an outstanding warrant" as a fragment with no main clause.

B

Correct: The because-clause stays attached to the main clause it explains.

Question 5 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Which of the following sentences is most clearly written?

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The dependent clause leads into a complete main clause, so the sentence is whole.

B

Incorrect: The period cuts off the because-clause, turning it into a fragment.

Question 6 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The comma sets off the description as an appositive renaming the laptop.

B

Incorrect: The description is split off by a period and has no verb, so it is a fragment.

Question 7 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Which of the following sentences is most clearly written?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "Had a handgun, he fired it" joins two independent clauses with only a comma, a comma splice.

B

Correct: "The suspect fired a handgun" states the action in one clause, with no punctuation problem.

Question 8 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The description is set off by commas inside one sentence with a single main verb.

B

Incorrect: "Heavily built, he wore" joins two complete clauses with a comma alone, a comma splice.

Question 9 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "Obey strictly the speed limits" wedges the adverb between the verb and its object, which reads awkwardly.

B

Correct: In "strictly obey," the adverb sits right before the verb it modifies, its natural place.

Question 10 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: A semicolon properly separates the two complete clauses.

B

Incorrect: The comma alone links two independent clauses, forming a comma splice.

Question 11 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "He" could refer to the officer or the driver, so the pronoun reference is unclear.

B

Correct: Naming "the officer" again makes clear who conducted the check.

Question 12 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: "Waited" gives the sentence a main verb, so it is complete.

B

Incorrect: "Waiting" is not a main verb on its own, so the sentence is a fragment.

Question 13 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The driver follows the opening phrase, so it is clear who was speeding.

B

Incorrect: The phrase is followed by "a pedestrian," which makes it sound as if the pedestrian was speeding.

Question 14 of 60 · Clarity · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the sentence that is written most clearly and correctly.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The opening phrase is followed by "a gray sweatshirt," which reads as if the sweatshirt was walking the dog.

B

Correct: "The subject was last seen" follows the opening phrase, so the person walking the dog is clearly named.

Question 15 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

The Northgate dispatch center labels each incident with a three-part code, read from left to right. The first letter gives the type of incident: F for fire, M for medical, and P for police. The second letter gives the area: D for downtown, M for the marina, and S for the suburbs. The final number gives the priority: 1 for high, 2 for medium, and 3 for low. Because the letter M is used in two positions, dispatchers must decode each letter according to where it appears in the code, not by the letter alone.

Using this system, what does the code P-M-3 indicate?

Answer explanations

A

Correct: P is police, M in the second position is the marina, and 3 is low priority.

B

Incorrect: M stands for medical only in the first position; here the first letter is P, for police.

C

Incorrect: Medium priority is 2; the code ends in 3.

D

Incorrect: Priority 1 is high; this code ends in 3, which is low.

Question 16 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

In 2023 the Centerville Police Department began identifying possible offenders by comparing the people it stopped against past arrest records and a list of behavioral "cues." Supporters said the method would let officers spot suspects quickly. Within a year, however, patrol supervisors noticed that officers were relying on general impressions instead of what was actually happening at each scene. Residents in several neighborhoods reported fewer crimes and stopped attending community meetings. The department's claims of success are also disputed, because local gangs changed their methods and began recruiting members who did not match the profile officers had been told to look for.

According to the passage, why are the department's claims of success disputed?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The passage never says the drop in reported crime was false, and it gives a different reason for the dispute.

B

Incorrect: Officers no longer looking at what happened at each scene is a separate problem the supervisors noticed, not the reason the claims are disputed.

C

Correct: The passage says the claims are disputed because gangs began recruiting members who did not match the profile.

D

Incorrect: The passage does not say the arrest records were out of date.

Question 17 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Robbery is the taking of property from another person's immediate presence, against that person's will, by using force or fear. If no force or fear is used, the taking is theft rather than robbery. The force or fear must be used to take the property or to keep it; force used only after the thief has safely escaped does not make the crime a robbery.

Based on the passage, which of the following describes a robbery?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Lifting a wallet without the owner noticing involves no force or fear, so this is theft.

B

Incorrect: The owner is away and nothing is taken by force or fear, so this is theft.

C

Incorrect: The shove comes the next day, after the thief had safely escaped, so it does not turn the taking into robbery.

D

Correct: Shoving the owner to keep hold of the purse is force used to take the property, which makes it robbery.

Question 18 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

In January the city council passed a curfew requiring anyone under 16 to be off the streets between 10 p.m. and 5 a.m. Juvenile arrests in February were 15 percent lower than in January. However, juvenile arrests in the city had fallen from January to February in each of the previous five years, by an average of 12 percent, as winter weather kept people indoors. The council plans to compare full-year totals before judging the curfew.

Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: In each of the previous five years, arrests fell from January to February.

B

Incorrect: Past years show a similar seasonal drop, so the curfew cannot be credited with all of it.

C

Incorrect: The council plans to wait for full-year totals before judging the curfew.

D

Correct: The usual seasonal pattern, a drop of about 12 percent in past years, accounts for most of the 15 percent February drop.

Question 19 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

The department encourages the release of body-worn camera footage to the public in order to promote transparency. Footage of a critical incident, such as a police shooting, is to be released within 45 days. Release may be delayed, however, if it would interfere with an active investigation, and any footage showing a minor must have the minor's face and voice blurred before it is released. Footage is never delayed simply because it shows an officer in an unfavorable light.

According to the policy, which is an acceptable reason to delay releasing footage?

Answer explanations

A

Correct: The policy allows a delay when release would interfere with an active investigation.

B

Incorrect: When the footage was recorded is not a reason to delay it; the 45-day figure is a release deadline for critical incidents.

C

Incorrect: The policy says footage is never delayed just because it shows an officer in an unfavorable light.

D

Incorrect: Blurring a minor's face and voice is required before release; once that is done, nothing in the policy calls for a delay.

Question 20 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Loss-Prevention Manual: After a Bag Check. An empty bag does not, by itself, end the matter. If other facts, such as a person repeatedly watching the cameras and hurrying toward the exits, still give reasonable suspicion of theft, staff may briefly detain the person for further questioning. Staff may not ban anyone on suspicion alone without questioning. Reasonable suspicion, not a single search result, governs whether staff may hold a shopper.

Based on the passage, how should staff proceed when the bag check finds nothing?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Banning on suspicion alone without questioning is exactly what the manual forbids.

B

Correct: The manual lets staff briefly detain a shopper when other facts still give reasonable suspicion.

C

Incorrect: The passage does not mention calling police or a refused check.

D

Incorrect: The manual says an empty bag does not by itself end the matter.

Question 21 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Fleet-Status Report: Precinct Patrol Vehicles. Of fifty patrol cars, ten are currently out of service in the repair shop and five are assigned to the detective bureau, leaving the rest available for patrol. The repair backlog is larger than usual because a parts shipment was delayed. Supervisors should plan around the reduced number of available cars.

Based on the report, how many patrol cars remain available for patrol?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Fifty is the whole fleet before any cars are taken out of service or reassigned.

B

Correct: Ten cars in the shop and five with the detective bureau leave 50 − 15 = 35 for patrol.

C

Incorrect: Subtracting only the five detective cars gives 45, but ten more are in the shop.

D

Incorrect: Subtracting only the ten cars in the shop gives 40, but five more are assigned to detectives.

Question 22 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

A state report compared four counties last year. County A spent $10 million on law enforcement and recorded 15 crimes per 1,000 residents. County B spent $14 million and recorded 10 crimes per 1,000 residents. County C spent $8 million and recorded 18 per 1,000. County D spent $20 million, the most of any county, and recorded 25 per 1,000. The report notes that the counties differ greatly in population and that the spending figures are totals, not amounts per resident.

Which statement is supported by the figures in the passage?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Higher spending did not bring lower crime rates in every case: County D spent the most and had the highest rate.

B

Incorrect: The report says the figures are totals, and the counties differ in population, so spending per resident cannot be worked out.

C

Incorrect: Totals for four counties cannot show that County B's spending caused its lower rate.

D

Correct: County D spent the most, $20 million, and had the highest rate, 25 crimes per 1,000.

Question 23 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Traffic congestion in the downtown corridor has delayed emergency response times by an average of four minutes over the past year. To address the delays, the city council has proposed turning the curb lanes on Main Street into emergency-vehicle lanes during business hours. Business owners on Main Street object that removing curbside parking will keep customers away, and they have asked the council to consider changing the timing of traffic signals instead.

Which choice best describes how the passage is organized?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: There is no comparison of two cities; only one city's traffic is discussed.

B

Correct: The passage states a problem (delays), a proposed solution (emergency lanes), and an objection from business owners.

C

Incorrect: The passage covers one recent problem; it gives no history.

D

Incorrect: The passage does not end with a conclusion; it ends with an unresolved objection.

Question 24 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Civics Handout: Cannabis Laws in Westland (fictional practice data). The fictional nation of Westland has fifty states. A survey of their laws found that seventeen allow marijuana for recreational use, thirty-three allow it for medical use only, and none prohibit it entirely. These counts change as state legislatures act, so the figures reflect only the survey year.

Based on the passage, which statement is most accurate?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: All 50 states permit some use, so it is not a small minority.

B

Correct: No state prohibits marijuana, and 33 of 50 allow medical use only, so every state allows some use and most allow medical use only.

C

Incorrect: The survey found that none of the states prohibits it entirely.

D

Incorrect: Only 17 of 50 states allow recreational use, which is not most.

Question 25 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

A review of hunting rules in protected wildlife reserves compared two kinds of purchases. Buying hunting equipment requires a background check, which limits who can obtain it. Buying ammunition, however, requires no background check at all. The reviewers warn that this difference could be exploited by those engaged in illegal poaching.

Based on the passage, which statement about the regulations is most accurate?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Only equipment purchases require a background check.

B

Incorrect: Equipment is the harder purchase because it needs a background check; ammunition faces no such restriction.

C

Incorrect: The reviewers only warn that the gap could be exploited; nothing says poaching has gone down.

D

Correct: Equipment purchases need a background check, while ammunition purchases need none.

Question 26 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Officers arrested the suspect on April 1. He had been released from the county jail on an unrelated charge three weeks before the arrest. Six days after his release, he met a known associate at a diner on Fifth Street, and a burglary was reported at a jewelry store across the street the next morning. Detectives connected him to the burglary through the associate's phone records, which they obtained the week before the arrest.

Based on the passage, which list gives the events in the order in which they occurred?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The meeting took place six days after the release, so the release comes first.

B

Incorrect: The phone records were obtained the week before the arrest, well after the burglary.

C

Correct: Release (three weeks before April 1), the meeting six days later, the burglary the next morning, phone records the week before the arrest, then the arrest.

D

Incorrect: The burglary was reported the morning after the meeting, not before it.

Question 27 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Night-shift officers in the department receive a pay differential of 8 percent. Last year the department also began giving night-shift officers first choice of vacation weeks. In the six months before that change, only 40 percent of night-shift positions were filled by volunteers; in the six months after, 75 percent were. The pay differential was not changed during the year.

Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The pay differential stayed the same all year, so it cannot explain the change.

B

Incorrect: Before the change only 40 percent of positions were filled by volunteers, which is not most.

C

Incorrect: Volunteer coverage rose after the benefit began, from 40 to 75 percent.

D

Correct: Volunteer coverage rose from 40 to 75 percent after the vacation benefit began, with pay unchanged, so the benefit may be the reason.

Question 28 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Departmental Briefing: Cybercrime Investigations Criminals increasingly use advanced encryption and anonymization tools to hide their identities and their data. These methods pose significant challenges for collecting digital evidence, because investigators may be unable to read intercepted files or trace communications to a person. To keep pace with the changing technology, the department needs continuous training, specialized forensic tools, and greater intelligence sharing among agencies.

Based on the passage, what challenge is identified regarding cybercrime investigations?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The briefing wants more inter-agency cooperation, and it mentions no data overload.

B

Incorrect: Paper-based methods are not mentioned.

C

Incorrect: The briefing calls for more training as well as tools, so it does not describe training as sufficient.

D

Correct: The briefing names encryption and anonymization tools as the obstacle to collecting digital evidence.

Question 29 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Community policing and zero-tolerance policing both aim to reduce crime but go about it differently. Community policing assigns officers to build relationships with residents and work with them on local problems. Zero-tolerance policing directs officers to cite or arrest people for even minor offenses, on the theory that tolerating small disorder invites serious crime. Studies of zero-tolerance programs have found short-term drops in some crimes but also more complaints against officers, while community policing tends to raise public trust more slowly.

Based on the passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Zero tolerance targets even minor offenses.

B

Incorrect: Community policing is said to raise trust more slowly.

C

Incorrect: The passage reports only short-term drops in some crimes, and only for zero tolerance.

D

Correct: The passage says studies of zero-tolerance programs found more complaints against officers.

Question 30 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Handling hazardous-materials incidents takes specialized training, and fire departments arrange it in different ways. Some train every firefighter, while others train only a chosen group. Whatever the approach, there is a minimum: there should always be at least one trained firefighter available on every shift and in every district, so no incident is left without qualified help. Fire chiefs should also make sure supervisory staff, such as battalion chiefs and station captains, receive this training so they can manage incidents effectively.

Based on the passage, what conclusion can be safely drawn?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The passage says some departments train only a chosen group.

B

Correct: The stated minimum is at least one trained firefighter on every shift and in every district.

C

Incorrect: The passage says supervisors should receive the training.

D

Incorrect: The passage never compares the danger of hazardous-materials incidents with other emergencies.

Question 31 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Officer Dana Cook studied the public complaint desk at her precinct and noticed two problems for people who use wheelchairs. The counter itself was built too high to be used comfortably from a seated position, and the buzzer that summons staff for help was mounted out of reach. Together, these features make it hard for some community members to file complaints in person.

Based on the passage, which statement is most accurate?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: The complaint desk is not closed to anyone; the passage describes barriers for people who use wheelchairs.

B

Incorrect: The passage is about people who use wheelchairs, not only people with severe disabilities.

C

Incorrect: The passage describes the desk's physical layout; nothing is said about officers refusing complaints.

D

Correct: The high counter and out-of-reach buzzer are accessibility barriers that hinder some community members from filing complaints in person.

Question 32 of 60 · Reading Comprehension · 20–24 itemsNot answered

Annual Report: Enforcement Trends. Noise complaints rose by twenty-three percent over the fiscal year, while traffic citations fell by exactly eighteen percent. The noise increase is linked to new late-night venues, and the citation decline to a staffing shortage in the traffic unit. Both figures will be watched closely in the coming year.

Based on the passage, which statement about the figures is accurate?

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Noise complaints rose by twenty-three percent.

B

Incorrect: The two figures changed by different amounts: twenty-three percent and eighteen percent.

C

Correct: The report says traffic citations fell by exactly eighteen percent.

D

Incorrect: Traffic citations fell by eighteen percent; they did not rise.

Question 33 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Choose the correct spelling of the missing word: The dog that bit the child was placed in ______ for ten days.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: "quarantine" is the correct spelling: q-u-a-r-a-n-t-i-n-e.

B

Incorrect: "quaranteen" has "een" where the correct spelling has "ine" (quarant[ine]).

C

Incorrect: "quarintine" has "i" where the correct spelling has "a" (quar[a]ntine).

D

Incorrect: "quarentine" has "e" where the correct spelling has "a" (quar[a]ntine).

Question 34 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The ______ was dispatched to respond to the medical emergency downtown.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "ambullance" doubles the "l" (ambul[l]ance).

B

Incorrect: "ambalance" has "a" where the correct spelling has "u" (amb[u]lance).

C

Correct: "ambulance" is the correct spelling: a-m-b-u-l-a-n-c-e.

D

Incorrect: "ambulence" has "e" where the correct spelling has "a" (ambul[a]nce).

Question 35 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Choose the correct spelling of the missing word: The negotiator tried to ______ the man to put down the knife.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: "persuade" is the correct spelling: p-e-r-s-u-a-d-e.

B

Incorrect: "pursuade" has "u" where the correct spelling has "e" (p[e]rsuade).

C

Incorrect: "perswade" has "w" where the correct spelling has "u" (pers[u]ade).

D

Incorrect: "persuede" has "e" where the correct spelling has "a" (persu[a]de).

Question 36 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The policy restricts the _____ of criminal history records to authorized agencies.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "dissemmination" doubles the "m" (disse[m]mination).

B

Incorrect: "dissimination" has "i" where the correct spelling has "e" (diss[e]mination).

C

Incorrect: "disemination" drops one "s" of the double "ss" (di[s]semination).

D

Correct: "dissemination" is the correct spelling: d-i-s-s-e-m-i-n-a-t-i-o-n.

Question 37 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the correctly spelled word to complete the sentence: The ______ declined to answer questions without a lawyer present.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "defendent" has "e" where the correct spelling has "a" (defend[a]nt).

B

Incorrect: "defandant" has "a" where the correct spelling has "e" (def[e]ndant).

C

Incorrect: "defendint" has "i" where the correct spelling has "a" (defend[a]nt).

D

Correct: "defendant" is the correct spelling: d-e-f-e-n-d-a-n-t.

Question 38 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The driver received a __________ for running the red light.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "voilation" reverses "io" to "oi"; the correct order is v[io]lation.

B

Correct: "violation" is the correct spelling: v-i-o-l-a-t-i-o-n.

C

Incorrect: "violasion" has "s" where the correct spelling has "t" (viola[t]ion).

D

Incorrect: "violaton" leaves out "i" (violat[i]on).

Question 39 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Choose the correct spelling of the missing word: The detective marked the court date on her ______.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "callendar" doubles the "l" (ca[l]lendar).

B

Incorrect: "calander" has "a" where the correct spelling has "e" (cal[e]ndar); it also has "e" where the correct spelling has "a" (calend[a]r).

C

Correct: "calendar" is the correct spelling: c-a-l-e-n-d-a-r.

D

Incorrect: "calandar" has "a" where the correct spelling has "e" (cal[e]ndar).

Question 40 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the correctly spelled word to complete the sentence: Detectives found evidence of the ______ of stolen goods in a storage unit.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "concealement" adds "e" (conceal[e]ment).

B

Correct: "concealment" is the correct spelling: c-o-n-c-e-a-l-m-e-n-t.

C

Incorrect: "conceilment" has "i" where the correct spelling has "a" (conce[a]lment).

D

Incorrect: "concelment" leaves out "a" (conce[a]lment).

Question 41 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The officer applied a tourniquet to stop the _____ from the victim's leg.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "hemorrage" leaves out "h" (hemorr[h]age).

B

Correct: "hemorrhage" is the correct spelling: h-e-m-o-r-r-h-a-g-e.

C

Incorrect: "hemorhage" drops one "r" of the double "rr" (hemor[r]hage).

D

Incorrect: "hemmorhage" doubles the "m" (hem[m]orhage); it also drops one "r" of the double "rr" (hemo[r]rhage).

Question 42 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Failure to appear after receiving a __________ may lead to arrest.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "sumons" drops one "m" of the double "mm" (su[m]mons).

B

Correct: "summons" is the correct spelling: s-u-m-m-o-n-s.

C

Incorrect: "sumonns" drops one "m" of the double "mm" (sum[m]ons); it also doubles the "n" (sumon[n]s).

D

Incorrect: "summuns" has "u" where the correct spelling has "o" (summ[o]ns).

Question 43 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Select the correctly spelled word to complete the sentence: The officer did not ______ the driver's story about the dent.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "beleave" has "ea" where the correct spelling has "ie" (bel[ie]ve).

B

Correct: "believe" is the correct spelling: b-e-l-i-e-v-e.

C

Incorrect: "belive" leaves out "e" (beli[e]ve).

D

Incorrect: "beleive" reverses "ie" to "ei"; the correct order is bel[ie]ve.

Question 44 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The unlocked vehicle was particularly __________ to theft due to its location in the unlit parking lot.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "suseptable" leaves out "c" (sus[c]eptible); it also has "a" where the correct spelling has "i" (suscept[i]ble).

B

Correct: "susceptible" is the correct spelling: s-u-s-c-e-p-t-i-b-l-e.

C

Incorrect: "susceptable" has "a" where the correct spelling has "i" (suscept[i]ble).

D

Incorrect: "suseptible" leaves out "c" (sus[c]eptible).

Question 45 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Choose the correct spelling of the missing word: Officers handed out a ______ on how to prevent car theft.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "phamplet" moves the "h": the correct spelling has it at pamp[h]let, not at p[h]amplet.

B

Incorrect: "pamflet" has "f" where the correct spelling has "ph" (pam[ph]let).

C

Incorrect: "pamphlit" has "i" where the correct spelling has "e" (pamphl[e]t).

D

Correct: "pamphlet" is the correct spelling: p-a-m-p-h-l-e-t.

Question 46 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The sergeant gave "explicit" instructions not to enter the building. As used in this sentence, "explicit" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Vague is the opposite of explicit.

B

Incorrect: Instructions can be strict without being clearly stated; explicit is about clarity, not severity.

C

Correct: Specific fits: explicit instructions are stated clearly and in detail.

D

Incorrect: Explicit means stated plainly, not repeated.

Question 47 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The city council passed a new ORDINANCE regulating late-night noise. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: An ordinance is a law passed by a city or county government.

B

Incorrect: A suggestion has no legal force; an ordinance does.

C

Incorrect: A custom is a habit or tradition, not an enacted rule.

D

Incorrect: A petition is a request to officials, not the rule they pass.

Question 48 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Two neighbors had an "altercation" over a parking space. As used in this sentence, "altercation" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: An accident is an unplanned mishap, not an argument between people.

B

Correct: Quarrel fits: an altercation is a noisy, angry argument.

C

Incorrect: An agreement is the opposite of an angry dispute.

D

Incorrect: A meeting can be calm; an altercation is a heated exchange.

Question 49 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The sergeant asked whether a door-to-door search was "feasible." As used in this sentence, "feasible" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Impossible is the opposite of feasible.

B

Incorrect: A search can be necessary and still not be possible to carry out.

C

Incorrect: Feasible is about whether a plan can work, not whether it is popular.

D

Correct: Workable fits: a feasible plan is one that can actually be carried out.

Question 50 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The quiet courtroom was interrupted by a sudden COMMOTION in the gallery. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: An emotion is a feeling; a commotion is noisy confusion among people.

B

Incorrect: Silence is the opposite of a commotion.

C

Incorrect: An objection is a formal protest in court, not general noise in the gallery.

D

Correct: An uproar is a noisy disturbance, which is what a commotion is.

Question 51 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

At roll call the captain chose to REITERATE the reporting requirements. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: To repeat something is to reiterate it.

B

Incorrect: To question a requirement is to challenge it rather than restate it.

C

Incorrect: To withdraw a requirement is to take it back, not to state it again.

D

Incorrect: To shorten a message is to trim it; reiterating says it again in full.

Question 52 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Officers moved quickly to QUELL the fight that broke out in the parking lot. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: To suppress a fight is to put it down, which is what quell means.

B

Incorrect: To investigate comes after the fact; quelling stops the fight itself.

C

Incorrect: To monitor a fight is only to watch it.

D

Incorrect: To instigate a fight is to start it, the opposite of quelling it.

Question 53 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Applicants must pass a "rigorous" physical fitness test. As used in this sentence, "rigorous" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Correct: Tough fits: a rigorous test is demanding and hard to pass.

B

Incorrect: A test can be short and rigorous; lengthy describes time, not difficulty.

C

Incorrect: The test is required either way; rigorous describes how hard it is.

D

Incorrect: Easy is the opposite of rigorous.

Question 54 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The clerk promptly "rectified" the error in the log. As used in this sentence, "rectified" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Correct: To rectify an error is to put it right, so the error was corrected.

B

Incorrect: An overlooked error is one nobody fixed.

C

Incorrect: An error has to be noticed before it can be fixed; rectify means the fix itself.

D

Incorrect: A justified error is defended, not fixed.

Question 55 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The forensic analysis provided IRREFUTABLE proof that the weapon matched. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Partial proof is incomplete, while irrefutable proof is conclusive.

B

Incorrect: Disputable means open to argument, the reverse of irrefutable.

C

Incorrect: Doubtful is the opposite of irrefutable.

D

Correct: Undeniable fits: irrefutable proof cannot be disproved.

Question 56 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

He helped FACILITATE the robbery by providing the alarm codes. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: To complicate a task is to make it harder; facilitating makes it easier.

B

Incorrect: To obstruct a crime is to block it, the opposite of facilitating it.

C

Correct: To facilitate a crime is to make it easier, so he assisted it.

D

Incorrect: Congratulate sounds formal but has nothing to do with making a task easier.

Question 57 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The victim's description of the car was "ambiguous." As used in this sentence, "ambiguous" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Precise is the opposite of ambiguous.

B

Correct: Unclear fits: an ambiguous description could mean more than one thing.

C

Incorrect: A brief description can still be perfectly clear.

D

Incorrect: An ambiguous statement need not be incorrect; it is open to more than one reading.

Question 58 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

The sergeant "admonished" the recruit for arriving late. As used in this sentence, "admonished" most nearly means:

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: Being praised is the opposite of being admonished.

B

Correct: To admonish someone is to warn or reprimand them, so the recruit was scolded.

C

Incorrect: Being fined means paying money; an admonishment is a spoken rebuke.

D

Incorrect: A dismissed recruit is let go; an admonishment is only a reprimand.

Question 59 of 60 · Vocabulary · 15–18 itemsNot answered

A BYSTANDER called 911 after seeing two men fight outside the bar. Choose the word that most nearly means the capitalized word.

Answer explanations

A

Correct: An onlooker watches an event without taking part, which is what a bystander does.

B

Incorrect: A victim is harmed by the event, not just present at it.

C

Incorrect: A participant takes part, the opposite of a bystander.

D

Incorrect: A suspect is believed to have committed the act, not merely to have seen it.

Question 60 of 60 · Spelling · 15–18 itemsNot answered

Choose the correct spelling of the missing word: Neighbors reported that a ______ dog had attacked a jogger.

Answer explanations

A

Incorrect: "viscious" adds "s" (vi[s]cious).

B

Incorrect: "viceous" has "e" where the correct spelling has "i" (vic[i]ous).

C

Incorrect: "vicous" leaves out "i" (vic[i]ous).

D

Correct: "vicious" is the correct spelling: v-i-c-i-o-u-s.

Answer every question to see your score

How to use this practice test

  • Start mixed, then drill. Run the whole set once with all sub-tests on, then use the chips to repeat the one you scored lowest on.
  • Read every explanation on clarity. POST's guide singles clarity out as the sub-test where study pays off, and its errors repeat: fragments, run-ons, misplaced modifiers and unclear pronouns. Learn to name the error, not only to spot the better sentence.
  • On reading, answer from the passage only. The test scores you on what the passage says, not on what you know about police work. Several wrong options here are true in real life but not supported by the text.
  • Time a full run. The real test gives you 1 h 45 min for 65–78 questions, roughly 1½ minutes each, and the reading passages take longer than the one-line writing items.
  • Don't turn your percentage into a T-score. The test reports a standardized score that compares you with other applicants (how it is scored). No practice percentage converts to it.

How many questions each sub-test has

The questions above come from these four sub-tests. Reading comprehension is the largest single block; the three writing sub-tests together are about two thirds of the test. Each name links to a page with that sub-test's questions only.

Source: POST Applicant Preparation Guide, form version 2025, pp. 1–2 · checked 21 Oct 2026

More practice in an app

PELLETB practice app

More PELLETB practice questions with explanations, in a study app. Not affiliated with California POST.

Trap: practice tests that still have CLOZE

A practice test with a long passage full of blanks to fill in is the old CLOZE sub-test. POST removed it on January 1, 2025, and agencies can only order the 2025 form. If a book or site still has a CLOZE section, check its other numbers too: many quote 2½ hours, while the test now takes 1 h 45 min.

The free practice test from POST

POST publishes a free Applicant Preparation Guide, updated for the 2025 form. It has a short sample of each sub-test with the answer key and a note on why each wrong choice is wrong, plus POST's own tips for each item type. Work through it once before test day: it is the sample written by the people who write the test.

It is short, though: a handful of items per sub-test. Use it to learn the layout, and use larger sets like the one above for volume. A study plan by sub-test shows which sub-test is worth the most of your time.

Other police written test practice

Pellet B practice test: quick answers

How many questions are on the Pellet B test?

65–78 multiple-choice items: 15–18 in each writing sub-test, 20–24 in reading comprehension. POST publishes a range for each sub-test, not a fixed count. Exam facts.

Are these real Pellet B questions?

No. POST keeps its test items secure. These are original questions written to the sub-test descriptions in POST's preparation guide, so they practice the same skills in different words.

How hard is it to pass the Pellet B exam?

That depends on the department's cut, not on a fixed pass mark. POST recommends a T-score of 42+, and a T-score of 50 is the average applicant. So a 42 is a little below average. If you fail, you can retest after 30 days.

What questions are on the Pellet B test?

Four kinds: choose the clearer of two sentences (clarity), pick the closest meaning of an underlined word (vocabulary), choose the correct spelling for a blank (spelling), and answer questions about a passage (reading comprehension). There is no math and no essay.

How should I study for the Pellet B test?

Begin with clarity, the sub-test POST says study helps most, then build reading speed with timed passages. Vocabulary and spelling improve slowly, so short daily sessions beat a last-week cram. Study guide.